english123 Posted February 17, 2005 Posted February 17, 2005 i know it has some sort of evilish feel to it, but what does it actaully mean>?
english123 Posted February 17, 2005 Author Posted February 17, 2005 oh snap, i also hear somewhere that its, Deception,Anger,Rage,Terror,Hate, but i guess thats wrong cuz there is no fear
Muad'Dib Posted February 17, 2005 Posted February 17, 2005 Lucas said in a very old interview that Darth Vader translates to "Dark Father" so Darth is translated to Dark basing myself on that.
ryan12177 Posted February 17, 2005 Posted February 17, 2005 I remember that it translates to Dark father in a earth based language(I forget what scandanavian language) but that isn't what it necesarily means in the SW's universe
Reveilled Posted February 17, 2005 Posted February 17, 2005 I remember that it translates to Dark father in a earth based language(I forget what scandanavian language) but that isn't what it necesarily means in the SW's universe <{POST_SNAPBACK}> I thought it was Dutch? I remember seeing a TV show where they mentioned that Vader was Father in Dutch... Hawk! Eggplant! AWAKEN!
jaguars4ever Posted February 17, 2005 Posted February 17, 2005 This thread is following a very familiar and predictable pattern. "
Darth_Radnor Posted February 17, 2005 Posted February 17, 2005 This thread is following a very familiar and predictable pattern. " <{POST_SNAPBACK}> Aye, that it is.
Azure79 Posted February 17, 2005 Posted February 17, 2005 Yeah, at first Darth Vader was the name of well...Darth Vader. It wasn't until later that it became a title for the Lords of the Sith after Darth Bane, the first 'Darth' Darth Bane is the guy who started the whole law of the two thing. Only Two Dark lords at any one time, one the master and one the apprentice. Bane lived about 1000 years before the first movie. But this is all EU and therefore can probably be changed on GL's whim
darkrlm Posted February 17, 2005 Posted February 17, 2005 If thres only two dark lords how does that explain sion, nihilus and treya all at once. AND Revan if he went dark.
Darth Credulous Posted February 17, 2005 Posted February 17, 2005 Ok. Read this. Read it carefully. Both lines. Darth Bane is the guy who started the whole law of the two thing. Only Two Dark lords at any one time, one the master and one the apprentice. Bane lived about 1000 years before the first movie. Now, bear in mind that KOTOR and KOTOR 2 are set 4000 years before the first movie. Does this answer your question? EDIT: Ok, if it doesn't answer the question, I'll make it clear. The law is: there shall only ever be two Sith AT ANY ONE TIME, a master and an apprentice. For example: Darth Sidious, Darth Maul. KOTOR is set BEFORE the time when the law of two Sith Lords is made. Therefore, it doesn't exist in KOTOR and there can be as many Sith Lords as can claim the title.
darkrlm Posted February 17, 2005 Posted February 17, 2005 If you're asking me, no Because you have bane and whoever then you have malak and revan, then treya, sion and nihilus then you have sidious and maul and so on so unless they changed the convention twice no
Darth Dan Posted February 17, 2005 Posted February 17, 2005 No, the timeline goes like this Revan - Malak Treya - Sion - Nihilus *skip a few thousand years* Bane - Aprrentice, creates law of two. *skip another thousand years* Sidious - Maul Sidious - Tyrannus (Dooku) Sidious - Vader
Darth Tratious Posted February 17, 2005 Posted February 17, 2005 Darth Plageus is Darth Sidious Master Revan - Malak Treya - Sion - Nihilus *skip a few thousand years* Bane - Aprrentice, creates law of two. *skip another thousand years* Revan - Malak Treya - Sion - Nihilus *skip a few thousand years* Bane - Aprrentice, creates law of two. *skip another thousand years* Darth Plageus - Darth Sidious Sidious - Maul Sidious - Tyrannus (Dooku) Sidious - Vader Sidious - Maul Sidious - Tyrannus (Dooku) Sidious - Vader
Kissamies Posted February 17, 2005 Posted February 17, 2005 Yes, Darth Dan is correct. The events of both KotOR's are placed on the 4000 BBY era of EU, while the Battle of Ruusan and Darth Bane is on 1000 BBY. BTW, I remember GL explaining the rule of two in some DVD or other by saying that if there was 3 Sith Lords, 2 of them would immediately ally against the third. Not the most unreasonable thing he has said. SODOFF Steam group.
Saint Posted February 17, 2005 Posted February 17, 2005 Hey Tratious I think you seriously need to edit that post because you're into some kind of Star Trekkian timeline mess up.. I mean major major timeline paradox that would make Emmett Brown cringe.
darkrlm Posted February 17, 2005 Posted February 17, 2005 I see now, and I thought that it was vader-palpatine
Darth Jebus Posted February 19, 2005 Posted February 19, 2005 I totally thought Darth was just a made-up name from the word "dearth", which just meant a lacking. Like a dearth of light or something. So, uh...
Matt7895 Posted February 21, 2005 Posted February 21, 2005 Yeah, at first Darth Vader was the name of well...Darth Vader. It wasn't until later that it became a title for the Lords of the Sith after Darth Bane, the first 'Darth' Darth Bane is the guy who started the whole law of the two thing. Only Two Dark lords at any one time, one the master and one the apprentice. Bane lived about 1000 years before the first movie. But this is all EU and therefore can probably be changed on GL's whim <{POST_SNAPBACK}> No, it can't, unless GL wants to go against what he has already said. He has made the EU official - the EU games are made by Lucasarts, his company, and the books are now organised by Lucasbooks, also his company. There is an EU databank at starwars.com and now the books, and most (not all) of the games have been entered into Star Wars canon. An example of the games in Star Wars canon are the Jedi Knight series, KOTOR 1+2. An example of the games NOT in canon are Galactic Battlegrounds, Rebel Assault, etc.
Darth Tratious Posted February 26, 2005 Posted February 26, 2005 Hey Tratious I think you seriously need to edit that post because you're into some kind of Star Trekkian timeline mess up.. I mean major major timeline paradox that would make Emmett Brown cringe. <{POST_SNAPBACK}> why plageus was sidious's master how do you think palpatine became the master most of that is from this board anyway
Kissamies Posted February 26, 2005 Posted February 26, 2005 No, it can't, unless GL wants to go against what he has already said. He has made the EU official - the EU games are made by Lucasarts, his company, and the books are now organised by Lucasbooks, also his company. There is an EU databank at starwars.com and now the books, and most (not all) of the games have been entered into Star Wars canon. An example of the games in Star Wars canon are the Jedi Knight series, KOTOR 1+2. An example of the games NOT in canon are Galactic Battlegrounds, Rebel Assault, etc. <{POST_SNAPBACK}> Canon is just the movies, and maybe also the novelisations of them to a lesser extent. EU is the organized universe outside the movies that is kept consistent. Lastly, there is the stuff that's outside EU, like the games you mentioned, stuff that happens in "alternate universe", fan fiction, etc. EU is not canon and GL has invalidated some EU storylines with his prequels and will probably trash a few more with Episode 3. I do hope that movie would be done with already so the trashing of my beloved EU would stop. SODOFF Steam group.
Ice-Cold Posted February 27, 2005 Posted February 27, 2005 Dark Lord of the Sith. <{POST_SNAPBACK}> Definantly "Dark Lord of the Sith", Revan and Malak where the first to shorten that term.. it's kinda obvious they did, because Revan was the first Darth after the Ulic Qel-Droma thing, he and Exar kun wasnt "Darth" Shane Tyduk Some awesome title name here "If you sharpen a knife to its limits, you run the risk of cutting your own hand. The knife has no choice but to be as sharp as you made it."
Rosbjerg Posted February 27, 2005 Posted February 27, 2005 I remember that it translates to Dark father in a earth based language(I forget what scandanavian language) but that isn't what it necesarily means in the SW's universe <{POST_SNAPBACK}> it was dutch .. Vader is not father in any scandinavian language .. in danish we have "far/fader" German is "Vater" mix those and you have "Vader" and Dutch .. and actually 'vader' means "walker" or "walking in a lazy way" in danish .. Fortune favors the bald.
DarkLordSkorpion Posted February 27, 2005 Posted February 27, 2005 I thought I heard somewhere that Darth meant shadow warrior. However, I believe that came from Super Shadow which is Super Fraud.
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