A question about the restored Abydon ending (Spoilers)

[demothios]

So, if one chooses to restore Abydon, untempered, you get this ending slide:

 

"Additionally, Abydon's restored interest in preservation led to redoubled efforts to survey Engwithan ruins. Animancers and craftsmen alike found much to study, but tensions with Eir Glanfath rose. (1)

As for Stalwart, the Battle of Cayron's Scar only strengthened their resolve to unlock the mysteries of Durgan steel and build new marvels with the White Forge.

However, Stalwart's ambitions brought them into further conflict with the Readcerans as more and more impoverished communities gathered at the border and vowed to finish the work of the Iron Flail. (2)

It would be many generations before the region saw peace."

 

 

I get how Abydon's rediscovered curiosity about the past could lead to conflict with the Glanfathans if it leads to sending followers of Abydon to Glanfathan ruins, but how does the second part make sense? Why would "more and more impoverished communities" gather at the border to finish the work of the IF?   Abydon's Forge's secrets have been revealed, so Abydonite priests from Raedceras would have little to no reason to start a conflict about it. Does Stalwart simply become extremely succesful, way more than they do in the untempered version, which leads to greedy, little Raedcerans wanting to invade and loot and pillage all that wealth?

 

I suspect, given the dialogue one can have with the Eyeless, that the writers put "progress" as some sort of opposite to history or preservation. That always struck me as weird, this supposed idea that progressivness would/should equal forgetting the past. But even if that's the motivation for coming up with that ending as a result of the untempered Abydon (again, only in regards to Raedceras, not Glanfathan ruins), I don't understand how we are supposed to arrive at that ending. We're talking simply some sort of butterfly effect, an orlan farts in Deadfire, war breaks out at the Dyrwood-Raedceras border again? But I just don't get it. It keeps being the storyline or writing that I felt makes least sense about Pillars 1. 

 

Anyway, anyone got any ideas that could explain how not tempering Abydon and letting him be restored, would lead to conflict with Raedceras?